May 18, 2007
I just have one question -- what is "abusive lending?"
If I'm hungry and borrow $10 from you so I can buy lunch at McDonalds, and I agree to pay you back $12 tomorrow, is that "abusive lending?" What if you tell me that you'll only give me the $10 if I pay you back $20? But what if I'm really hungry and have the money and WANT to pay you the $20? What if you will only give me the $10 if I pay you back $100 tomorrow -- but I REALLY want the Big Mac, and I'm willing to give you the $100 tomorrow. Is THAT "abusive lending?"
What if I own a house and am renting it to someone? What if my mortgage payments are $750 a month, but I charge them $1000 a month? Is that "abusive?" How about if they want to buy the house from me and I agree -- but still charge them $1000 a month (which they've been paying and can afford)? Does that reach the magical threshold of "abusive lending?" Or how about if I charge them $1,001?
In order for their to be ANY level called "abusive lending," there has to be a level that is "correct" lending. However, in a free economy, there absolutely can be no such thing. How much is a rock worth? It's worth whatever the person who wants the rock is willing to pay. So if there's to be a "correct" level of lending, that can only be an arbitrary number, enforced by government with guns. So much for any concept of economic freedom.
Posted by: Ogre at
01:04 PM
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Posted by: chris at May 18, 2007 01:42 PM (rBjHa)
Posted by: Ogre at May 18, 2007 05:04 PM (oifEm)
Posted by: chris at May 18, 2007 06:21 PM (rBjHa)
Posted by: Ogre at May 18, 2007 06:26 PM (oifEm)
Posted by: chris at May 18, 2007 07:09 PM (rBjHa)
Posted by: Ogre at May 18, 2007 07:51 PM (oifEm)
Posted by: chris at May 20, 2007 12:09 AM (qz/By)
Posted by: Ogre at May 20, 2007 04:42 PM (UXCWf)
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